Top 40 CISA Exam Questions and Answers 2024
CISA Certification: Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam Q & A
For those entering the world of information systems
auditing, the Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) exam is a
significant milestone. It requires not just knowledge but also a deep understanding
of cybersecurity principles, risk management strategies, and governance
frameworks.
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| CISA EXAM Preparation Question and Answer |
In this carefully curated MCQs for CISA Exam, we've put together questions that capture the essence of
being a proficient information systems auditor. Each question has been crafted
to challenge your thinking, reinforce your understanding, and prepare you for
the rigors of the CISA examination. From understanding security controls to
navigating the complexities of incident response, these questions are designed
to test your skills and expand your horizons. CISA
Certification offer more than just exam preparation—they're a pathway to
mastery, providing insights that go beyond the boundaries of a test.
So, get ready to embark on a journey of discovery and
growth of ISACA Certification
as we explore the Top 40 CISA Exam Questions & Answers for 2024. It's an
opportunity to deepen your knowledge, sharpen your skills, and embrace the
challenges ahead.
CISA Exam MCQs 2024:
1. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of an information system audit?
A) Ensuring 100% security
B) Providing absolute assurance
C) Providing reasonable assurance
D) Ensuring zero risk
Correct Answer: C) Providing reasonable assurance
Explanation: Information system audits aim to provide
reasonable, not absolute, assurance about the security, effectiveness, and
efficiency of an organization's information systems and processes.
2. What is the primary focus of a compliance audit?
A) Assessing system performance
B) Ensuring adherence to laws and regulations
C) Identifying system vulnerabilities
D) Analyzing data integrity
Correct Answer: B) Ensuring adherence to laws and
regulations
Explanation: Compliance audits primarily focus on
evaluating whether an organization complies with relevant laws, regulations,
and internal policies governing its operations.
3. Which of the following is NOT a key component of the CISA exam domains?
A) Governance and Management of IT
B) Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and
Implementation
C) Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning
D) Employee Training and Development
Correct Answer: D) Employee Training and Development
Explanation: While employee training and development are
important, they are not explicitly included as a separate domain in the CISA
exam.
4. Which phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) primarily focuses on gathering business requirements?
A) Planning
B) Implementation
C) Analysis
D) Maintenance
Correct Answer: C) Analysis
Explanation: The analysis phase of the SDLC involves
gathering and analyzing business requirements to determine the system's
functional and non-functional requirements.
5. Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?
A) Security guards
B) Firewall
C) Intrusion detection system
D) Security awareness training
Correct Answer: B) Firewall
Explanation: Preventive controls are designed to prevent
security incidents from occurring, such as firewalls that block unauthorized
access attempts.
6. What type of audit opinion is issued when auditors identify significant issues but believe the financial statements are fairly presented?
A) Qualified opinion
B) Adverse opinion
C) Disclaimer of opinion
D) Unqualified opinion
Correct Answer: A) Qualified opinion
Explanation: A qualified opinion is issued when auditors
believe the financial statements are fairly presented except for certain
identified issues.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a risk assessment?
A) To eliminate all risks
B) To identify and mitigate risks
C) To transfer all risks to third parties
D) To ignore potential risks
Correct Answer: B) To identify and mitigate risks
Explanation: Risk assessments are conducted to identify
potential risks to an organization's operations and implement measures to
mitigate or manage those risks effectively.
8. What is the primary objective of segregation of duties?
A) To increase operational efficiency
B) To decrease employee workload
C) To prevent fraud and errors
D) To streamline decision-making
Correct Answer: C) To prevent fraud and errors
Explanation: Segregation of duties aims to reduce the
risk of fraud and errors by distributing tasks and responsibilities among
different individuals or departments.
9. Which of the following encryption methods uses the same key for both encryption and decryption?
A) Asymmetric encryption
B) Triple DES
C) Symmetric encryption
D) RSA
Correct Answer: C) Symmetric encryption
Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses the same key for
both encryption and decryption processes, making it faster and more efficient
than asymmetric encryption.
10. What is the purpose of a penetration test?
A) To evaluate the performance of a system
B) To identify and exploit vulnerabilities
C) To simulate a real-world attack
D) To assess compliance with regulations
Correct Answer: B) To identify and exploit
vulnerabilities
Explanation: Penetration tests are conducted to identify
security vulnerabilities in a system or network by simulating real-world
attacks and attempting to exploit them.
11. Which of the following is an example of a detective control?
A) Encryption
B) Firewalls
C) Security cameras
D) Access control lists
Correct Answer: C) Security cameras
Explanation: Detective controls are designed to detect
and respond to security incidents after they have occurred, such as security
cameras that monitor and record activities.
12. What is the primary purpose of an IT governance framework?
A) To implement specific security controls
B) To ensure alignment between IT and business objectives
C) To conduct vulnerability assessments
D) To develop software applications
Correct Answer: B) To ensure alignment between IT and
business objectives
Explanation: IT governance frameworks help organizations
ensure that IT activities and investments are aligned with and support the
organization's overall business objectives and strategies.
13. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the incident response process?
A) Detection
B) Containment
C) Resolution
D) Prevention
Correct Answer: D) Prevention
Explanation: Prevention is an overarching goal of
security measures but is not considered a phase of the incident response
process, which primarily includes detection, containment, eradication, and
recovery.
14. What is the primary purpose of a disaster recovery plan?
A) To prevent disasters from occurring
B) To minimize the impact of disasters on business
operations
C) To eliminate all risks associated with disasters
D) To recover lost data after a disaster
Correct Answer: B) To minimize the impact of disasters on
business operations
Explanation: Disaster recovery plans are developed to
ensure that businesses can recover and resume critical operations with minimal
disruption in the event of a disaster or disruptive incident.
15. Which of the following authentication methods requires the use of something the user knows?
A) Biometric authentication
B) Token-based authentication
C) Password-based authentication
D) Certificate-based authentication
Correct Answer: C) Password-based authentication
Explanation: Password-based authentication relies on
something the user knows, namely a password, for identity verification and
access control.
16. In the context of risk management, what does the term "residual risk" refer to?
A) The risk remaining after implementing controls
B) The highest possible risk level
C) The initial risk assessment
D) The risk transferred to insurance companies
Correct Answer: A) The risk remaining after implementing
controls
Explanation: Residual risk refers to the level of risk
that remains after implementing risk mitigation measures or controls.
17. Which of the following is an example of a technical control?
A) Security policies
B) Background checks
C) Intrusion detection systems
D) Employee training
Correct Answer: C) Intrusion detection systems
Explanation: Technical controls are security measures
that are implemented through technology, such as intrusion detection systems,
firewalls, and encryption.
18. What is the primary objective of change management processes?
A) To resist change and maintain the status quo
B) To ensure that all changes are implemented immediately
C) To manage and control changes to IT systems and
infrastructure
D) To eliminate the need for any changes
Correct Answer: C) To manage and control changes to IT
systems and infrastructure
Explanation: Change management processes are designed to
manage and control changes to IT systems and infrastructure in a systematic and
controlled manner to minimize disruption and ensure alignment with business
objectives.
19. Which of the following is an example of a logical access control?
A) Security guards
B) Biometric scanners
C) Security tokens
D) Usernames and passwords
Correct Answer: D) Usernames and passwords
Explanation: Logical access controls restrict access to
computer systems and data based on user credentials, such as usernames and
passwords.
20. What is the primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
A) To identify critical business functions and the impact
of their disruption
B) To analyze market trends and competitor strategies
C) To evaluate employee performance
D) To assess financial risks
Correct Answer: A) To identify critical business
functions and the impact of their disruption
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is
conducted to identify critical business functions and assess the potential
impact of their disruption on the organization's operations and objectives.
21. What is the purpose of a vulnerability assessment?
A) To identify and exploit vulnerabilities
B) To assess compliance with regulations
C) To simulate a real-world attack
D) To identify and quantify security weaknesses
Correct Answer: D) To identify and quantify security
weaknesses
Explanation: Vulnerability assessments aim to identify
and quantify security weaknesses in systems, networks, and applications to
facilitate the implementation of appropriate controls.
22. Which of the following is a key element of the risk management process?
A) Avoidance
B) Ignorance
C) Ambiguity
D) Acceptance
Correct Answer: A) Avoidance
Explanation: Risk management involves various strategies,
and avoidance is one of them, aiming to eliminate or mitigate the impact of
risks.
23. What is the primary purpose of a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
A) To assess the financial impact of a privacy breach
B) To identify and mitigate privacy risks in projects and
systems
C) To monitor employee privacy violations
D) To increase public awareness of privacy issues
Correct Answer: B) To identify and mitigate privacy risks
in projects and systems
Explanation: A privacy impact assessment (PIA) is
conducted to identify and address privacy risks associated with projects and
systems, ensuring compliance with privacy laws and regulations.
24. Which of the following is an example of a compensating control?
A) Encryption
B) Firewalls
C) Security awareness training
D) Intrusion detection systems
Correct Answer: C) Security awareness training
Explanation: Compensating controls are alternative
measures that can be implemented to counteract the deficiencies of primary
controls, such as providing security awareness training to compensate for some
vulnerabilities.
25. What is the primary objective of continuous monitoring in information security?
A) To monitor security incidents in real-time
B) To conduct periodic security assessments
C) To achieve 100% security
D) To detect and respond to security events on an ongoing
basis
Correct Answer: D) To detect and respond to security
events on an ongoing basis
Explanation: Continuous monitoring involves the real-time
or near-real-time monitoring of security controls to promptly detect and
respond to security events and incidents.
26. Which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) focuses on designing the architecture of the system?
A) Analysis
B) Implementation
C) Design
D) Maintenance
Correct Answer: C) Design
Explanation: The design phase in the SDLC involves
creating the architecture and specifications for the system based on the
requirements identified during the analysis phase.
27. What is the primary purpose of a security incident response plan?
A) To prevent all security incidents
B) To minimize the impact of security incidents
C) To ignore security incidents until they resolve
themselves
D) To transfer responsibility for security incidents to
external entities
Correct Answer: B) To minimize the impact of security
incidents
Explanation: Security incident response plans are
designed to minimize the impact of security incidents by providing guidelines
for detecting, responding to, and recovering from incidents.
28. In the context of access controls, what does the principle of least privilege suggest?
A) Assigning the maximum level of access to all users
B) Assigning the minimum level of access necessary for
users to perform their job functions
C) Granting access based on job titles rather than
responsibilities
D) Ignoring access control policies
Correct Answer: B) Assigning the minimum level of access
necessary for users to perform their job functions
Explanation: The principle of least privilege recommends
granting users the minimum level of access required to perform their job
functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and misuse.
29. Which of the following is a key consideration in implementing effective security awareness training?
A) Conducting training once a year
B) Customizing training content to the audience
C) Ignoring the importance of user awareness
D) Restricting access to training materials
Correct Answer: B) Customizing training content to the
audience
Explanation: Effective security awareness training
involves tailoring the content to the specific needs and characteristics of the
audience to maximize its impact.
30. What is the primary purpose of a disaster recovery exercise?
A) To cause disruptions and chaos
B) To assess the financial impact of a disaster
C) To test the effectiveness of the disaster recovery
plan
D) To eliminate the need for a disaster recovery plan
Correct Answer: C) To test the effectiveness of the
disaster recovery plan
Explanation: Disaster recovery exercises are conducted to
assess and validate the effectiveness of the disaster recovery plan, ensuring
that it can be executed successfully in the event of a real disaster.
31. Which of the following is an example of a preventive physical control?
A) Security cameras
B) Access control lists
C) Security guards
D) Intrusion detection systems
Correct Answer: C) Security guards
Explanation: Preventive physical controls, such as
security guards, aim to deter unauthorized access and protect physical assets
by providing a physical presence and monitoring access points.
32. What is the primary purpose of a security baseline?
A) To establish the maximum level of security
B) To define the minimum level of security required
C) To eliminate all security vulnerabilities
D) To implement security controls randomly
Correct Answer: B) To define the minimum level of
security required
Explanation: Security baselines define the minimum level
of security requirements for systems, networks, and applications, serving as a
foundation for implementing and maintaining security controls.
33. Which of the following is NOT a common category of security controls?
A) Administrative controls
B) Physical controls
C) Logical controls
D) Emotional controls
Correct Answer: D) Emotional controls
Explanation: Emotional controls are not a recognized
category of security controls. The common categories include administrative,
physical, and logical controls.
34. What is the primary purpose of encryption?
A) To authenticate users
B) To ensure data integrity
C) To prevent unauthorized access to data
D) To store data indefinitely
Correct Answer: C) To prevent unauthorized access to data
Explanation: Encryption transforms data into a scrambled
format that can only be read with the appropriate decryption key, thereby
preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information.
35. What is the primary purpose of a data retention policy?
A) To store all data indefinitely
B) To delete all data immediately
C) To define guidelines for retaining and disposing of
data
D) To encrypt all data
Correct Answer: C) To define guidelines for retaining and
disposing of data
Explanation: A data retention policy establishes
guidelines for the retention and disposal of data based on legal, regulatory,
and business requirements, ensuring proper management of information throughout
its lifecycle.
36. Which of the following is an example of a technical vulnerability?
A) Weak passwords
B) Social engineering attacks
C) Insider threats
D) Lack of security policies
Correct Answer: A) Weak passwords
Explanation: Weak passwords represent a technical
vulnerability that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to
systems and data.
37. What is the primary purpose of a security incident report?
A) To document security incidents for historical purposes
B) To notify users about security incidents
C) To facilitate communication with law enforcement
agencies
D) To document details of security incidents for analysis
and response
Correct Answer: D) To document details of security
incidents for analysis and response
Explanation: Security incident reports document relevant
details of security incidents to facilitate analysis, response, and mitigation
efforts by the incident response team.
38. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the incident handling process?
A) Detection
B) Recovery
C) Prevention
D) Containment
Correct Answer: C) Prevention
Explanation: Prevention is a proactive measure aimed at
reducing the likelihood of security incidents and is not considered a phase of
the incident handling process, which typically includes detection, containment,
eradication, and recovery.
39. What is the primary purpose of an access control list (ACL)?
A) To track user logins
B) To restrict access to resources based on predefined
rules
C) To generate audit logs
D) To encrypt sensitive data
Correct Answer: B) To restrict access to resources based
on predefined rules
Explanation: Access control lists (ACLs) are used to
define and enforce rules that determine which users or systems are granted
access to specific resources, such as files, folders, or network devices.
40. Which of the following is an example of a biometric authentication factor?
A) Password
B) PIN
C) Fingerprint
D) Smart card
Correct Answer: C) Fingerprint
Explanation: Biometric authentication factors include
physiological characteristics such as fingerprints, which are unique to
individuals and can be used for identity verification purposes.
List of Top 20 CISA
Certified Role Interview Questions
Summing up:
As we wrap up our journey of the Top 40 CISA
Exam Questions & Answers for 2024 through CISA Exam dumps, it's about more than just exam prep—it's about
growth, resilience, and the pursuit of excellence. Each question you've
encountered has been a stepping stone, guiding you toward a deeper
understanding of information systems auditing principles.
Beyond the exam, this journey represents a commitment to continuous learning
and professional development. It's a testament to your dedication to mastering
the craft of information systems auditing and embracing the responsibilities
that come with it.
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